Sunday, September 4, 2011

The Fallacy of the Orgasm-Inducing Penis--Why do we let it carry on?

I have one question.

For the sake of the question, assume that, in roughly fifty percent of male heterosexual encounters, the female partner does not climax. 

Also assume that it is largely because the male partner was engrossed in his own pleasure, and primarily that he felt he could induce female orgasm with (mostly) his own sexual appendage alone.

Why continue to allow this?


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